This case, and its reporting, puzzles me.
http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-england-london-17741200
Firstly, why does every report seem to connect this with the riots. As far as I remember, there was no trouble in Beckton, where this man was arrested, and all reports claim that he was stopped for suspected drug-driving, although all charges were dropped. So why keep mentioning the riots?
Secondly, why did the CPS initially think that there was not enough evidence to charge the police officer? Presumably they had the mobile phone recording of the racist abuse, when they first considered it? Listening to the recording, it's very clear that it was racist. How do they justify trying to sweep this under the carpet? - http://www.guardian.co.uk/uk/v...-recording-black-man Warning - racist language, as well as a rude C word.
Thirdly, apparently, one of the officers strangled the suspect/victim, and is heard admitting it (proudly) in the recording. However, all witnesses, apart from the suspect/victim, dispute who actually did this. If they are saying that it happened, but not the person claimed by the suspect/victim, why is that person not being investigated? Also, are all the witnesses police officers?